Hi! So let me say that back in January I had a colonoscopy after a flare up showing that I had inflammation throughout my entire colon and officially confirmed that I had Crohn's disease. Thankfully, I had no fissures, no fistulas, and no strictures. My initial symptoms were not terrible; loose stools, but not diarrhea 2-3 times per day, abdominal discomfort, and mouth sores. So, initially, my doctor prescribed 40mg of prednisone after the colonoscopy, and looked to put me on 6mp. I went in for the blood test to make sure my body can handle this medication, but unfortunately, the lab screwed up the test, so I had to go in two to three weeks later to get it done again. Meanwhile, the prednisone was working; one formed bowel movement in the morning, and no abdominal discomfort. I was symptom free. When I finally started the 6mp, I had already tapered down to 30mg of prednisone. Then, the week after I fully tapered off the prednisone, my symptoms reappeared as the same before. I was only 4 weeks into the 6mp, and thought that we didn't give the 6mp enough time to "kick in." After a month of my symptoms not getting any better, my doctor put me back on 40mg of prednisone again, and of course, everything went back to normal again. My question is did I not give the 6mp enough time to kick in? It has been a little over 3 months since I started 6mp, and I just went in the other day for another blood test to see if the 6mp is in therapeutic range. By the way, I am on 50mg of 6mp. Any answers appreciated!
