Hi Everyone,
I was just diagnosed on September 1st of this year. These were the results of the biopsies from my 8/28 colonoscopy:
Diagnosis:
A-B. Terminal ileum and right colon, biopsies: Patchy active chronic
ileitis and colitis.
C. Left colon, biopsy: No significant abnormality.
My CRP and ESR are slightly elevated. I'm on 200mg of Imuran (have been on it now about 5 weeks) and 9mg of budesonide (between that and my short course of prednisone, I've been on steroids about 7 weeks). I had an MRE last week and my doctor called my to discuss the results. He said it showed 5-10 cm of thickening at my terminal ileum. He said he thinks I'm on a good treatment and thinks it will work.
I was curious about the results, so I requested to see them myself. Can someone help me understand the results? It says:
"there is minimal wall thickening and enchancement involving the terminal ileum spanning a 5-10 cm segment leading to the ileocecal valve. There is no mucosal hyperenhancement or hyperemia to suggest active inflammatory bowel disease".
Later on, in the findings, it says "Minimal wall thickening and enhancement involving a 5-10 cm segment of the terminal ileum, consistent with sequela of Crohn's disease. There are no findings of active or fibrostenosing Crohn's disease" they also found "innumerable gallstones". Everything else was unremarkable.
Does this mean I was misdiagnosed, or could I have possible gone in to remission in just 2 months? My bowel movements have gotten a lot better, no more diarrhea, but still have some abdominal pain. My doctor has reassured me that he would not have me on the meds I'm on unless he was sure of the diagnosis. We ruled out NSAID use (didn't use them much) and other things. But then I wonder why he didn't mention the inactive part from the results? Could it be that my inflammation is so mild the MRE didn't pick it up? I have a follow up with him on 11/13 and will ask him then, but wanted to see if any of you had any advice.
Thanks.
I was just diagnosed on September 1st of this year. These were the results of the biopsies from my 8/28 colonoscopy:
Diagnosis:
A-B. Terminal ileum and right colon, biopsies: Patchy active chronic
ileitis and colitis.
C. Left colon, biopsy: No significant abnormality.
My CRP and ESR are slightly elevated. I'm on 200mg of Imuran (have been on it now about 5 weeks) and 9mg of budesonide (between that and my short course of prednisone, I've been on steroids about 7 weeks). I had an MRE last week and my doctor called my to discuss the results. He said it showed 5-10 cm of thickening at my terminal ileum. He said he thinks I'm on a good treatment and thinks it will work.
I was curious about the results, so I requested to see them myself. Can someone help me understand the results? It says:
"there is minimal wall thickening and enchancement involving the terminal ileum spanning a 5-10 cm segment leading to the ileocecal valve. There is no mucosal hyperenhancement or hyperemia to suggest active inflammatory bowel disease".
Later on, in the findings, it says "Minimal wall thickening and enhancement involving a 5-10 cm segment of the terminal ileum, consistent with sequela of Crohn's disease. There are no findings of active or fibrostenosing Crohn's disease" they also found "innumerable gallstones". Everything else was unremarkable.
Does this mean I was misdiagnosed, or could I have possible gone in to remission in just 2 months? My bowel movements have gotten a lot better, no more diarrhea, but still have some abdominal pain. My doctor has reassured me that he would not have me on the meds I'm on unless he was sure of the diagnosis. We ruled out NSAID use (didn't use them much) and other things. But then I wonder why he didn't mention the inactive part from the results? Could it be that my inflammation is so mild the MRE didn't pick it up? I have a follow up with him on 11/13 and will ask him then, but wanted to see if any of you had any advice.
Thanks.