I'm not sure if this is under the right sub category but here goes...
My 63 year old Dad was just diagnosed with Crohn's disease exactly 16 years, to the day, after my diagnosis. I have many questions...
How? Why? Wtf!? But really here's some background info and then my questions..
On his colonoscopy they noted ulcerations and a stricture. He's having a CT tomorrow to work up the rest of the small intestine. Kidney and liver function is normal, iron levels and hgb are good. Vitamin levels were drawn today. He is 100% asymptomatic. This was just an incidental finding on a colonoscopy he was 13 years over due for. The NP gave him the option of starting medication. Azathioprine or possibly a biologic. Azathioprine would control inflammation but isn't as good for strictures. She also said he could try going without meds but obviously still has to follow up.
My thoughts are get the CT results. If there's significant disease he obviously needs meds. But can he just start with an oral? Or does he need a biologic since he's had a stricture? Here's where I struggle if there's really only involvement in the terminal portion of the ileum can he just stay off meds since he's not symptomatic?
And for my own selfish curiosity.. how did he make it 50 years longer than I did without getting diagnosed? I know they say there's no genetic component and it just "runs in families" but what the heck does that mean? I have a sister in her early 20s with IBS symptoms.. should she be scoped too? Is there any good literature in whether or not I could pass this on to children?
Ugh.. thanks in advance to anyone that reads this. I am just in a state of disbelief right now. How the heck did this happen?
My 63 year old Dad was just diagnosed with Crohn's disease exactly 16 years, to the day, after my diagnosis. I have many questions...
How? Why? Wtf!? But really here's some background info and then my questions..
On his colonoscopy they noted ulcerations and a stricture. He's having a CT tomorrow to work up the rest of the small intestine. Kidney and liver function is normal, iron levels and hgb are good. Vitamin levels were drawn today. He is 100% asymptomatic. This was just an incidental finding on a colonoscopy he was 13 years over due for. The NP gave him the option of starting medication. Azathioprine or possibly a biologic. Azathioprine would control inflammation but isn't as good for strictures. She also said he could try going without meds but obviously still has to follow up.
My thoughts are get the CT results. If there's significant disease he obviously needs meds. But can he just start with an oral? Or does he need a biologic since he's had a stricture? Here's where I struggle if there's really only involvement in the terminal portion of the ileum can he just stay off meds since he's not symptomatic?
And for my own selfish curiosity.. how did he make it 50 years longer than I did without getting diagnosed? I know they say there's no genetic component and it just "runs in families" but what the heck does that mean? I have a sister in her early 20s with IBS symptoms.. should she be scoped too? Is there any good literature in whether or not I could pass this on to children?
Ugh.. thanks in advance to anyone that reads this. I am just in a state of disbelief right now. How the heck did this happen?