I was diagnosed with Crohn's Disease July 2010 after developing a fistula while pregnant with my son. My surgon does the seton and a colonoscopy and sends me to a GI. The GI right away puts me on Pentasa and Remicade. Now other than that fistula I don't really have any symptoms. I have never in my life had a flare up! I have suffered with constipation ever since doing a weight loss program that had me at 18 pills a day(yes stupid I now know but I was getting married and wanted to look good, I did lose 40 lbs though!) and lose BM after eating certian foods. What I'm confused about is why the Pentasa? I get that the remicade is for the fistula but why the Pentasa? I've read my medical records and I know that I'm not a DR but it says "evidence of past acute inflamation". I did the study where I had to drink the white thick mess and then have X-rays done and that did say that there was narrowing at the illeium but if I don't have ANY symptoms other than the fistula. Everyone I know that has done weight loss programs that involved pills has constipation issues and everyone has certian foods that tear them up, so why do I have to take a medication for symptom's that I don't have. Have any of you dealt with this or know someone who has dealt with this?