Hi there folks. This is slightly long-winded one, so I'll try and keep it brief. Bear with me...
First, the background information. I was diagnosed with Crohn's disease after I had my first flare-up when I was 13. I'm now 27 and have been in remission since starting Infliximab nearly four years ago (January 2014).
Around three weeks ago, I began having stomach pains. The pain could appear anywhere in my abdomen/stomach area, but was mostly restricted to my lower abdomen (around my waist). It wasn't particularly painful, but would probably best be described as a persistent, dull pain that was always there without significantly increasing or decreasing in intensity. It didn't make me feel particularly unwell, although I was suffering from a mild cold at the time and the combination did make me feel somewhat run-down. My stools during this time were still solid and reasonably well-formed, as has been the case for several years now, but they were noticeably more difficult to pass and often came out very thin as though there was something preventing them from passing normally.
I went to see my GP two weeks ago, and after asking me some questions and listening to/feeling my stomach, she didn't seem to think there was anything indicating inflammation. She suggested it was most likely due to an excess of stomach acid (I had been to a wedding right before I first started experiencing the symptoms and I had eaten and drank quite a lot) and prescribed a course of Omeprazole.
Initially, this seemed to work quite well although, knowing myself, part of this will have been down to the relief of having seen a doctor (I'm a bit of a hypochondriac, which, as I'm sure most of you know, isn't a great combination when you suffer from a chronic illness, given that you know in the back of your mind that you might be right...). However, over the past couple of days, I've noticed that the stomach pain has returned. It's the same dull pain as before, perhaps occasionally best described as a very mild burning sensation and it doesn't make me feel unwell, although again I am dealing with a cold/sore throat at the moment as well. Again, it is mostly restricted to my lower abdomen, but will appear now and then further up my abdomen. My stools are normal now though, which is a relief.
I suppose the question I want to ask is whether or not this sounds familiar to any of you. Does this sound like a re-occurrence of my Crohn's symptoms or is it more likely to be to do with excess stomach acid? Or is it that the cold/flu symptoms I've been having have affected my stomach (which normally happens for me, although not quite like this)? I have an appointment to go back to see my GP on Monday afternoon, but being the worrier I am, it feels better to chat about it here in the meantime, especially given the level of expertise on here (even though I'm sure we'd all rather not have so much knowledge of this particular field)...
Anyway, thanks for taking the time to read this, and I really appreciate any insight you might have.
Cheers
First, the background information. I was diagnosed with Crohn's disease after I had my first flare-up when I was 13. I'm now 27 and have been in remission since starting Infliximab nearly four years ago (January 2014).
Around three weeks ago, I began having stomach pains. The pain could appear anywhere in my abdomen/stomach area, but was mostly restricted to my lower abdomen (around my waist). It wasn't particularly painful, but would probably best be described as a persistent, dull pain that was always there without significantly increasing or decreasing in intensity. It didn't make me feel particularly unwell, although I was suffering from a mild cold at the time and the combination did make me feel somewhat run-down. My stools during this time were still solid and reasonably well-formed, as has been the case for several years now, but they were noticeably more difficult to pass and often came out very thin as though there was something preventing them from passing normally.
I went to see my GP two weeks ago, and after asking me some questions and listening to/feeling my stomach, she didn't seem to think there was anything indicating inflammation. She suggested it was most likely due to an excess of stomach acid (I had been to a wedding right before I first started experiencing the symptoms and I had eaten and drank quite a lot) and prescribed a course of Omeprazole.
Initially, this seemed to work quite well although, knowing myself, part of this will have been down to the relief of having seen a doctor (I'm a bit of a hypochondriac, which, as I'm sure most of you know, isn't a great combination when you suffer from a chronic illness, given that you know in the back of your mind that you might be right...). However, over the past couple of days, I've noticed that the stomach pain has returned. It's the same dull pain as before, perhaps occasionally best described as a very mild burning sensation and it doesn't make me feel unwell, although again I am dealing with a cold/sore throat at the moment as well. Again, it is mostly restricted to my lower abdomen, but will appear now and then further up my abdomen. My stools are normal now though, which is a relief.
I suppose the question I want to ask is whether or not this sounds familiar to any of you. Does this sound like a re-occurrence of my Crohn's symptoms or is it more likely to be to do with excess stomach acid? Or is it that the cold/flu symptoms I've been having have affected my stomach (which normally happens for me, although not quite like this)? I have an appointment to go back to see my GP on Monday afternoon, but being the worrier I am, it feels better to chat about it here in the meantime, especially given the level of expertise on here (even though I'm sure we'd all rather not have so much knowledge of this particular field)...
Anyway, thanks for taking the time to read this, and I really appreciate any insight you might have.
Cheers
