I'm hoping I can get some help on interpreting CT results. The report boils down to the following impression: "Mural thickening and fatty infiltration of the terminal ileum [consistent with CD]. No evidence of active inflammation at this time. No evidence of bowel obstruction."
Given that there's no inflammation (which there was in September prior to starting Remicade), what does that mural inflammation and fatty infiltration mean? The radiologist doesn't use the term stricture anywhere in this report, but I'm wondering if that's what he's getting at.
Background: I had the scan yesterday to check on things, because since starting Remicade 3.5 weeks ago, I've had nonstop diarrhea and bloating, which are not typical day-to-day symptoms for me. The general course of my illness has been symptom-free most of the time with sporadic episodes of small bowel obstruction that generally resolve on their own.
I have a call in to the GI doc, but am feeling kind of anxious to puzzle this out. Can anyone help me understand these results? Thanks.
Given that there's no inflammation (which there was in September prior to starting Remicade), what does that mural inflammation and fatty infiltration mean? The radiologist doesn't use the term stricture anywhere in this report, but I'm wondering if that's what he's getting at.
Background: I had the scan yesterday to check on things, because since starting Remicade 3.5 weeks ago, I've had nonstop diarrhea and bloating, which are not typical day-to-day symptoms for me. The general course of my illness has been symptom-free most of the time with sporadic episodes of small bowel obstruction that generally resolve on their own.
I have a call in to the GI doc, but am feeling kind of anxious to puzzle this out. Can anyone help me understand these results? Thanks.