- Joined
- Jun 3, 2019
- Messages
- 8
Hello everyone,
I found this website today and I was hoping that all of your experiences can help me understand my husband's situation.
My husband is 33 years old. He has never had any severe bowel problems. In 2014 he underwent a colonoscopy which diagnosed him with IBS and and colon inertia.
One month ago my husband got sick with a fever, it lasted a couple of days and with it he started having moderate to severe diarrhoea. Following this he started feeling spasm-like pains in his rectal area. A few years ago a GP told my husband that he had an anal fissure. It eventually healed, so we assumed this was the fissure coming back. With the diarrhoea there was some bleeding so that was a cause of concern. When he went to the emergency room, the doctor said that he had an abscess and that the blood coming out was something different and he would need a colonoscopy.
The doctors in the emergency room drained his abscess and his spasm pain immediately went away. He underwent an endoscopy and a colonoscopy/endoscopy. The doctor indicated in the colonoscopy report: Moderate inflammation with aphthous ulcers at sigmoid, rectum, descending colon. In the endoscopy report he indicated: moderate gastritis at body, antrum and moderate duodinitis at first part of duodenum.
Immediately following the colonoscopy the doctor put him on prednisone. Even prior to the colonoscopy the doctor kept telling us that he suspects crohns. This was a week ago. During that week the doctor also had my husband do an MRI which revealed the following: right side of the colon is filled with fecal matter and has apparent wall thickening, to be correlated with colonoscopy. It also indicated a left sided short low lying intersphicteric peril-anal fistula.
In the meantime the biopsy report from the endoscopy/colonoscopy revealed the following:
sigmoid colon biopsy: serial levels reveal colonic mucosal tissue with picture of focal active colitis, most likely infectious in aetiology, no changes of IBD, no dysplasia or malignancy.
rectal biopsy: serial levels reveal rectal mucosal tissue with picture of middle focal active proctitis, most likely infectious in aetiology, no changes of IBD, no dysplasia or malignancy.
the biopsy report concluded that he has focal active colitis and mild focal active proctitis (it also tested his gastric area and it indicated a h. pylori associated moderate chronic non-active gastritis)
His blood works came back mostly normal except for slightly elevated calcium, but his CRP number was very high at 65.1.
We met the doctor yesterday and he was very rushed, he insisted that my husband has crohns and that he should eventually start taking Humira to treat his fistula. Currently the only symptom my husband has is the fistula which is causing him no pain at all or drainage, he has never had abdominal pain throughout this whole ordeal, prior to this month he hardly had any symptoms except for the slight gas here and there after a heavy fiber meal. Today he is passing normal stools and having regular and healthy bowel movements. You wouldn't know he is sick and he does not feel ill.
I am very sorry to overwhelm you all with this, I am just confused as to how certain/quick the doctor was to state that my husband has crohn's. He is very rushed, sees us for less than 10 minutes, and does not even discuss side effects of drugs like Humira. I am starting to worry that perhaps we should see another doctor?
I am not sure if this is the right place to post this, I am just very confused and I was hoping someone has gone through something similar.
Thank you all!
I found this website today and I was hoping that all of your experiences can help me understand my husband's situation.
My husband is 33 years old. He has never had any severe bowel problems. In 2014 he underwent a colonoscopy which diagnosed him with IBS and and colon inertia.
One month ago my husband got sick with a fever, it lasted a couple of days and with it he started having moderate to severe diarrhoea. Following this he started feeling spasm-like pains in his rectal area. A few years ago a GP told my husband that he had an anal fissure. It eventually healed, so we assumed this was the fissure coming back. With the diarrhoea there was some bleeding so that was a cause of concern. When he went to the emergency room, the doctor said that he had an abscess and that the blood coming out was something different and he would need a colonoscopy.
The doctors in the emergency room drained his abscess and his spasm pain immediately went away. He underwent an endoscopy and a colonoscopy/endoscopy. The doctor indicated in the colonoscopy report: Moderate inflammation with aphthous ulcers at sigmoid, rectum, descending colon. In the endoscopy report he indicated: moderate gastritis at body, antrum and moderate duodinitis at first part of duodenum.
Immediately following the colonoscopy the doctor put him on prednisone. Even prior to the colonoscopy the doctor kept telling us that he suspects crohns. This was a week ago. During that week the doctor also had my husband do an MRI which revealed the following: right side of the colon is filled with fecal matter and has apparent wall thickening, to be correlated with colonoscopy. It also indicated a left sided short low lying intersphicteric peril-anal fistula.
In the meantime the biopsy report from the endoscopy/colonoscopy revealed the following:
sigmoid colon biopsy: serial levels reveal colonic mucosal tissue with picture of focal active colitis, most likely infectious in aetiology, no changes of IBD, no dysplasia or malignancy.
rectal biopsy: serial levels reveal rectal mucosal tissue with picture of middle focal active proctitis, most likely infectious in aetiology, no changes of IBD, no dysplasia or malignancy.
the biopsy report concluded that he has focal active colitis and mild focal active proctitis (it also tested his gastric area and it indicated a h. pylori associated moderate chronic non-active gastritis)
His blood works came back mostly normal except for slightly elevated calcium, but his CRP number was very high at 65.1.
We met the doctor yesterday and he was very rushed, he insisted that my husband has crohns and that he should eventually start taking Humira to treat his fistula. Currently the only symptom my husband has is the fistula which is causing him no pain at all or drainage, he has never had abdominal pain throughout this whole ordeal, prior to this month he hardly had any symptoms except for the slight gas here and there after a heavy fiber meal. Today he is passing normal stools and having regular and healthy bowel movements. You wouldn't know he is sick and he does not feel ill.
I am very sorry to overwhelm you all with this, I am just confused as to how certain/quick the doctor was to state that my husband has crohn's. He is very rushed, sees us for less than 10 minutes, and does not even discuss side effects of drugs like Humira. I am starting to worry that perhaps we should see another doctor?
I am not sure if this is the right place to post this, I am just very confused and I was hoping someone has gone through something similar.
Thank you all!